One group of mostly right wing scholars argues that the Declare War Clause assigns to Congress the primary power to initiate military action. crsreports.congress.gov….
IIRC, FDR couldn't initiate military action and declare war and thus our "neutrality" (I know how lend lease circumvented that) but it took the attack on Pearl Harbor, and yet we couldn't declare war on Germany, but Hitler declared war on us. Until 9/11 only congress could authorize military action, but in response it delegated such powers to the Presidency (Bush) that is why we had the WOT. Am I wrong here?
One group of mostly right wing scholars argues that the Declare War Clause assigns to Congress the primary power to initiate military action. https://crsreports.congress.gov/product/pdf/LSB/LSB11232#:~:text=One%20group%20of%20scholars%20argues,to%20combat%20without%20congressional%20authorization.
IIRC, FDR couldn't initiate military action and declare war and thus our "neutrality" (I know how lend lease circumvented that) but it took the attack on Pearl Harbor, and yet we couldn't declare war on Germany, but Hitler declared war on us. Until 9/11 only congress could authorize military action, but in response it delegated such powers to the Presidency (Bush) that is why we had the WOT. Am I wrong here?